$3.99 a month puts a library of commentaries, study notes, and Greek & Hebrew language tools right in your pocket. John 8:58 may echo Exodus 3:14 either based on the Hebrew text or the LXX. The expression is a Hebrew idiom and is used to express a non-terminated existence, i.e., the existence that Jesus as the Logos had before Abraham lived had never up to the time of His speaking in this text come to an end.” — page 45. Jesus was likely speaking in Hebrew in the actual story and John may have chosen to use the LXX rendering of EHYEH in its first occurrence in Exodus 3:14 as ego eimi. 3 I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name the Lord I did not make myself fully known to them. Search a pre-defined list OR Select a range of biblical books. The New Testament, by G. R. > Noyes. Thus Jesus answered the question of the Jews about His greatness in comparison to Abraham and how His words are able to sustain life. 3 The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in adulteryThey made her stand before the group 4 and said to Jesus, “Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery. John 8:58's deliberate mistranslation of Jesus saying "I AM" with new evidence from the Greek language! John 8:58 is one of the favorite scriptures that Trinitarians try to use to prove that Jesus is God. Exodus 6:3 English Standard Version (ESV). Ask a question about John 8:58… Here the Saviour claims with a double “Amen” the Incommunicable Name (Exodus 3:14). (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses) Why it is Highly Probable That the Hebrew Word 'Ehyeh' is Mistranslated as "I AM" at Exodus 3:14 (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)----- BACK TO HOME PAGE INDEX. Reflect on God’s comfort and learn a new Hebrew word each day with this new devotional series. 2- The Greek text of John 8:58. They say that Jesus is claiming to be the great "I Am," which is supposedly the name God applied to himself in Exodus 3:14. Take a look at the Hebrew text here: The same Hebrew word (1961) is used 2 scriptures apart (right beside the 12 and the 14), but it is translated differently in v.14, in order to prop Jesus' claim to Jehovahhood. It’s interesting to note, however, that the translators chose “I am” only in John 8.58. John 8:58. Posted by Elijah Daniels at 8:00 AM. The sections of this article are: 1- The text of John 8:58. their Scriptures were translated into Greek. 8 1 but Jesus went to the Mount of Olives. Exodus 6:2-3. Clear Advanced Options. However, the two statements are very different. Before Abraham was, I am. Bible translation and John 8:58. Compare John 8:58 in other Bible versions. 15:09. NIV 58 “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” (Because of this, Trinitarians often refer to this as 'proof' that Jesus is the Hebrew GOD of the O.T.) That the Lord elevated himself into his divine love, and filling his humanity with that love, he excites mutual love in the church, and from that love imparts heavenly truth. (a)- Jesus was the foretold Messiah and the greatest and final Jewish Prophet. Parallel Bible. This translation was the work of eminent Jewish scholars and was to be used by the Jewish, Greek speaking, Diaspora. RVR60 VUL WLC LXX mGNT TR . John 8:58. Now the humble Nazarene openly assumes and claims it. If we read the New Testament in the original Greek, we would find that quotes from the Old Testament are also in Greek. ABP_Strongs 58 G2036 [2 said G1473 3 to them G3588 G* 1 Jesus], G281 Amen, G281 amen, G3004 I say G1473 to you, G4250 Before G* Abraham G1096 existed G1473 I G1510.2.1 am. Online Parallel Study Bible. The Greek He uses is not an untranslatable phrase anymore than the Hebrew phrase He quotes is, so that it would be equally obfuscatory to render this "I am" of our Lord as ego eimi (the Greek for "I am"). John 8:58 - The Translation “I Am” is Verbal Nonsense and Grammatically Erroneous (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses) John 8:58 - Did Jesus Really Say, "I AM"? Advanced Bible Search. Question#1: Dear Dr. Luginbill, I'm in an argument with a [member of an anti-Trinitarian sect] over John 8:58.He says "I have been" is a perfectly good rendering (instead of "before Abraham was born, I AM"). This is the name which the Jews for centuries had not dared to utter. Books of the Bible. But how do we compare the words of John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14? It is important to note that in John 8:58 the word "am" or "εἰμί" is not capitalized in the phrase "I am" in the original manuscripts. Yet, this is not carried forth in John 8:58. John 8:58 - εἶπεν αὐτοῖς ἰησοῦς, ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν... - Jesus said to them, In the fourth quote, he seems to refer to the Jews' disbelief that Jesus had a pre-human existence. (2 At dawn he appeared again in the temple courts, where all the people gathered around him, and he sat down to teach them. (i)- Jesus also was the heir who will inherit the earth. John 8:58 - NWT . > > 1935: "I existed before Abraham was born!" English Words used in KJV: I am + 74 am 55 it is I + 6 be 2 I was + 1 have been 1 not tr 7 Strong’s Talking Greek & Hebrew Dictionary. However, in about the third century B.C. Study This. Literally, this is "I am the being one." The Bible-An American Translation, > by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed. The LXX also has it in the present tense which is what the Greek syntax states. John 8:58 - Verses used to Support the Doctrine of the Trinity - Duration: ... -The Secret Name of Jesus - (Hidden Code- Hebrew Ideograms) - Duration: 4:44. And Ex. John 8:58. Help Quick Nav Advanced Options. Most Bibles translate the Hebrew from Exodus 3:14 as "I am"--the present tense as did the Hebrew translators of the LXX. Strong’s Talking Greek & Hebrew Dictionary. This is the famous passage in which Moses asked God his name, to which God replied: “I AM WHO I AM.” (NRSV) Of course, this text was originally written in Hebrew. He is quite within the framework of respectable biblical interpretation. This post is not an in-depth discussion of John 8:58. Verses 8:3, 4, 5. In the third quote, he seems to emphasize the meaning of John 8:58 as Jesus existing before Abraham, and not as Jesus claiming God's name. 3 I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as God Almighty, [] but by my name the Lord I did not make myself known to them. FIRST: “I AM” Is Not A Name. KJV Errors: Hebrew Masoretic vs Greek Septuagint - Duration: 15:09. Summary on John 8:58 Jesus claimed to be the existing One in present time before Abraham came into being in the past. John 3:16, Jesus faith love) KJV. Read verse in Hebrew Names Version and was used and known in Jesus’ time. Finally as in John 8:58 and, as double entendre is most commonly used, it implied a second meaning without actually stating it. Jesus uses the present tense in John 8:58. John 8:58 Cross References - ABP_Strongs . > > 1965: "Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am." Let’s now address the issue of reference to the Divine Name. From: To: OR Custom Selection: Use semicolons to … Quite easily in fact. This was also Jesus’ reason for using parables (Luke 8:10). Many references given from the Old Testament in the New Testament are excerpt from the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible: the Septuagint. NET RSV ASV YLT DBY WEB HNV. John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. Some say that the words “I AM” is the divine name of God of which Jesus attributed to himself. John 8:58 - Verses used to Support the Doctrine of the Trinity - Duration: 12:06. Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.” KJV NKJV NLT NIV ESV CSB NASB. John 8:58 Yeshua said to them, "Most assuredly, I tell you, before Avraham came into existence, I AM." He is referring to himself from the Old Testament speaking to Moses: Exodus 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I … In John 8:58, Jesus does apply the meaning of this Name to Himself when He says, "Before Abraham came into existence, I am"), thus clearly identifying Himself as God. The Far Side 9,173 views. In order for the Trinitarian argument that Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 makes him God, his statement must be equivalent with God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14. NAS 58 Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." Strong's Number H858 matches the Hebrew ... Search verses, phrases, and topics (e.g. - John 8:58, NIV and most others. As far as Hebrew translations of the New Testament, the link you gave references Franz Delitzsch’s translation as its source. While the Greek phrase in John does mean "I am," the Hebrew phrase in Exodus actually means "to be" or "to become." Silently they had read it, used another in its stead, revered and adored it. When, therefore, a preacher calls attention to the fact that the expression ego eimi is found in both Exodus 3:14 and John 8:58, with the same design in both passages, i.e., a declaration of the eternal self-existence of deity, he has not erred. The Old Testament was written primarily in Hebrew and the New Testament was written entirely in Greek. And he said, "Say this to the people of Israel, 'I AM has sent me to you.'" Not once did Athanasius attempt to connect John 8:58 with Exodus 3:14. One can make the argument that YHWH did say “I Am” in Exodus 3:14 but this Hebrew translation is also debatable. Exodus 5 Exodus 7 Exodus 6:2-3 New International Version (NIV) 2 God also said to Moses, “I am the Lord. The translation was done around 270 B.C. Study This. to report Jesus' words to the Jews in John 8:58. Many Bible versions render John 8:58 this way: "Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am." John 8:58 “Before Abraham was, ... longer spoke Hebrew in daily life, but Aramaic, although at that time they still read their Scriptures in the Hebrew original. Explaining the Inner Meaning of John 8 Verses 8:1, 2. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John > 8:58: > > 1869: "From before Abraham was, I have been." 3:14 this way: "God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM." John 8:58. It signifies unchangeable essence and everlasting duration. 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